NFPE GUNTUR DIVISION: April 2013

This model paper prepared and compiled by Akula. Praveen Kumar, SPM, Papannapet Sub Office-502 303, Medak Division, Andhra Pradesh(9849636361,8019549939)

Disclaimer:- All questions/Information provided in this post are Compiled by A. Praveen Kumar for in good faith of Postal Assistant exam aspirants. The types of questions, number of questions and standard of questions may be vary in actual examination. This is my predictions only. Author of blog does not accepts any responsibility in relation to the accuracy, completeness, usefulness or otherwise, of the contents. Utmost care has been taken to prepare the model cum practice paper as per syllabus prescribed by India Post.

This is a practice paper only.

Previously the Department filtered the aspirants on the basis of merit and allowed 1:10 ratio for the examination. Hence the previous pattern and type of exam and standard of examination was easy. But this year onwards the selection process was changed and heavy competition is there for selection of Postal Assistant. The Examiner will set tough standard / medium hard level to test candidate grasp of basic concepts of principles, Knowledge, application level, ability to solve the complex problems.

Best of luck to all Postal Assistant Exam Aspirants.

MODEL CUM PRACTICE PAPER

Marks: 100 Duration: 2 hours

Instructions to Candidates

1. Answer All the Questions

2. Each question Carries “1” Mark

3. Round off the appropriate choice in OMR sheet

PART-A

(General Knowledge & Current Affairs)

1. Scientist in the month of December revealed a planet that could support life, orbits a Sun-like star near the Earth. What is the name of the star around which this planet was found orbiting?

1. Tau Ceti 2. Sirius 3. Ophiuchi 4.Gliese 33

2.Park Guen –hye has beenelected as the first women President of

1. Thailand 2.Vietnam 3. South Korea 4.Maurritius

3. The term “Chucker” is used in which sports?

1.Football 2. Horse Racing 3. Wrestling 4. Polo

4. Which of the following fairs is not correct?

1. Rangaswamy Cup-Hockey 2. Rovers Cup- Football

3.Federation Cup-Badminton 4.Deodhar Trophy-Cricket

5. Who wrote the Book entitled ‘Ghulamgiri’ ?

1. B. R. Ambedkar 2. Narayan Guru 3. Jyotiba Phule 4. M. P. Pillai

6. How many censuses (including the 2011 census) have been carried out since independence?

1. 05 2. 06 3. 07 4. 08

7. Consider the following

A. Fundamental Rights

B. Fundamental Duties

C. Directive Principles of State policy

In India the provisions related to “education” have been embodied in which among the above

1. A & B 2. B & C 3. A & C 4. A&B&C

8. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time—

1. 25th Amendment Act 2. 26th Amendment Act
3. 24th Amendment Act 4. 27th Amendment Act

9. Who finally approves the draft of Five year plans

1. Parliament and State Legislatures 2.National Development Council

3. Planing Commission 4. Presiodent

10. What was main contribution of Jainism to Indian Philosophy?

1. The doctrine of rebirth 2. The doctrine of Syadvada

3. The doctrine of immortality of soul 4. The doctrine of Brahma is nirguna

11. There is only one edict, in which Ashoka refers himself as king of Magadha. Identify the edict from the following?

1. The Queens Edict 2.Bhabhru Edict

3. Rock edict of Mashi 4. Dhuali Piller Inscription”

12. During the region of “Krishna Devaraya” which of the following famous temples were built in Vajayanagar empire?

1. Hampi 2. Hazura 3. Belugam 4. Tirumala

13. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to ‘Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’?

1.Ras Behari Bose 2.Batukeshwar Datt

3. Sardar Bhagat Singh 4. Chandra Shekhar Azad

14. Select the correct chronological order of following reformers of the medieval Bhakti movements by using code given below—

A. Namdeva B. Vallabhacharya C. Ramananda D. Kabir

1. A, B,C,D 2. B,C,D,A 3. C,D,A,B 4. D,A,B, C

15. When did Gandhiji go to fast unto death for the first time ?

1. At the time of Communal award 2. At the time of riots in Calcutta
3. At the time of riots in Delhi 4. At the time of Jallianwala Bagh tragedy

16. Green flames given out by the burning of firework is due to the presence of—

1. Sodium 2.Barium 3.Potassium 4.Calcium

17. A colour blind Person has difficulty in distinguishing between which colours?

1. Black & Blue 2. Green & Violet 3. White & Yellow 4. Green & Red

18. “Minamata” disease is caused by

1. Automobile exhausts containing lead

2. Water Pollution from Sevage

3. Industrial wastes having mercury compounds

4. Wastes from Chemical factories

19. Which one of the following is not a function of Protein?

1. Building up of tissues 2. Catalysing some reactions

3. Growth of bones 4. Repair of torn tissues

20. Mother milk lacks of

a. Vitamin C b. Protin c. Sodium d. Iron

1. a & c 2. b& c 3. a & d 4. b & d

21. The term that best describes the shape of earth is ?

1. Eclipse 2. Geoid 3. Globe 4. Shphere

22. Where on the Earth is located “Sirohi Point”?

1. North Pole 2. Indian Ocean 3. Carabbean sea 4. Antartica

23. The gulf of Kutch is one of the two two regions on west coast of India, identified suitable for Tidal Power Station. Which among the following is the other one?

1. Gulf of Mannar 2. Gulf of Khamhat 3. Laccadive 4. Konken

24. The “Hkakabo Razi” which is famous for Hkakabo Razi National Park, is boarder tri-point between which of the following countries

1. India- China- Nepal 2. India – Bhutan- China

3. India- Bangladesh- Myanmar 4. India- China - Myanmar

25. Which of the following State is highest density of Post Offices in India

1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Andhra Pradesh 3. West Bengal 4. Tamilnadu

PART-B

MATHEMATICS

Directions—(Q. 26 to 27) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

26. 196 × 948 ÷ 158 = ?

1. 1156 2. 1200 3. 1188 4. 1176

27. The Value of ?

1. 2 2. 3/2 3. 4/13 4. 36/13

28.	(√ 625 / 11 ×14 ×√25 ×11 / √196 ) is equal to

1. 11 2. 8 3.6 4. 5

29. A watch ticks 90 times in 95 seconds and another watch ticks 315 times in 323 sec. If both the watches are started together, how many times will they tick together in the first hour?

1. 51 2. 61 3.101 4.111

30. Three math classes: X, Y, and Z, take an algebra test. The average score in class X is 83. The average score in class Y is 76.The average score in class Z is 85. The average score of all students in classes X and Y together is 79. The average score of all students in classes Y and Z together is 81.What is the average for all the three classes?

1. 81 2. 81.5 3. 82 4. 84.5

31. Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper is 9 times as heavy as water. In what ratio should these be mixed to get an alloy 15 times as heavy as water?

1. 1:5 2. 2:5 3. 3:5 4. 3:2

32. In a mixture 60 liters, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If the this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quantity of water to be further added is:

1. 70 Ltrs 2. 60Ltrs 3. 50 ltrs 4. 40 ltrs

33. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are

1. 42 & 33 2. 44 & 35 3. 46 & 38 4. 45 & 36

34. A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. A subscribes Rs. 4000 more than B and B Rs. 5000 more than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000, A receives

1. 13200 2. 14700 3. 14500 4. 13600

35. The area of a rectangle is 460 square metres. If the length is 15% more than the breadth, what is the breadth of the rectangular field?

1. 15 Mtrs 2. 18 Mtrs 3. 20 Mtrs 4. 22 Mtrs

36. A boat running downstream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering the same distance upstream, it takes 4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?

1. 4 Km/h 2. 6 Km/h 3. 8 Km/h 4. 10Km/h

37. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year:

1. 2018 2. 2022 3. 2026 4. 2024

38. A does half as much work as B and C does half as much work as A and B together. If C alone can finish the work in 40 days, then together all will finish the work in:

1. 32/3Days 2. 43/3 days 3. 40/3 days 4. 44/3 days

39. Vinod can do a piece of work in 20 days. Sandeep is 25% more efficient than Vinod. The number of days taken by Sandeep to do the same piece of work is

1. 15 Days 2. 16 days 3. 17 days 4. 14days

40. A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely?

1. 3 hrs 15 min 2. 3 hrs 45 min 3. 4 hrs 4. 4 hrs 15 min

41. Two trains, each 100 m long, moving in opposite directions, cross each other in 8 seconds. If one is moving twice as fast the other, then the speed of the faster train is:

1. 40 Km/h 2. 50Km/h 3.60Km/h 4.70Km/h

42. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?

1. 240 m 2. 260m 3. 280m 4. 270m

43. A is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C is. The journey covered by C in 54 minutes will be covered by B in:

1. 20 minutes 2. 25 minutes 3. 16 minutes 4. 18minutes

44. By mixing two brands of tea and selling the mixture at the rate of Rs. 177 per kg, a shopkeeper makes a profit of 18%. If to every 2 kg of one brand costing Rs. 200 per kg, 3 kg of the other brand is added, then how much per kg does the other brand cost?

1.Rs 116.66 2. Rs 125.34 3. Rs 118.69 4. Rs114.17

44. A grocer sells rice at a profit of 10% and uses weights which are 20% less than the market weight. The total gain earned by him will be :

1. 35.2 % 2.35.7% 3.37.4% 4.37.5%

45. If simple interest on a certain sum of money is Rs. 256 and the rate of interest per annum equals the number of years, then the rate of interest is

1. 16% 2. 18% 3.20% 4.22%

46. A sum of money at compound interest amounts to thrice itself in three years. In how many years will it be 9 times itself?

1. 5 Years 2. 6 Years 3. 7 Years 4. 4 Years

47. The compound interest on a sum for 2 years is Rs. 832 and the simple interest on the same sum for the same period is Rs. 800. The difference between the compound and simple interest for 3 years will be

1. Rs 66.56 2. Rs 64.89 3.98.56 4.74.57

48. Ten years ago, Visnuvardhan was thrice as old as Harshavardhan was ,but 10 years hence, he will be only twice as old. Find Harshvardhan’s present age

1. 30Years 2. 35 Years 3.40 Years 4.38 Years

49. There is a seller of cigarette and match boxes who sits in the narrow lanes of Medak. He prices the cigarettes at 85 p, but found that there are no takers. So he reduced the price of cigarette and managed to sell all the cigarettes, realising Rs. 77.28 in all. What is the number of cigarettes?

1. 49 2.89 3. 84 4. 92

50. The length of a rectangular plot is 20 metres more than its breadth. If the cost of fencing the plot @ 26.50 per metre is Rs. 5300, what is the length of the plot in metres?

1. 40 meters 2.60meters 3. 80meters 4.90meters

PART-C

GENERAL ENGLISH

DIRECTIONS :-( 51-55) Read the following Passage and answer the Questions

The supervisor would have to change this attitude towards people first. The staff under him must be perceived as human beings with feelings and needs. They are not autonomous within complex work machinery. One of the greatest needs of to-days worker is to have a feeling that he is in control of his workplace and not vice versa. The best way is to satisfy this need as far as possible. He must feel first, that his work is meaningful. To do this is supervisor must delegate responsibility and limited authority for the man to execute his job well. The subordinate must be properly trained to assume responsibility and authority. Once he is ready to assume these he can be made accountable for his job. Very often supervisors assume all responsibility and accountability for fear of losing control of the workplace. This makes workers under him pawns in a vast chess board. Delegating accountability gives the worker a purpose in life and the need to a do a job well Most important is to sit with each worker and chalk out common objectives and agreed norms to achieve them . This gives workers a security as to what is expected of them. When he has met his objectives he certainly has a feeling achievement. This feeling of achievement is the greatest motivatior.

51. Responsibility and accountability make a worker

1. Tense and frightened 2. shirk his duties

3. Vulnerable before his supervisor 4. do his job properly

52. Supervisors do not delegate responsibility and authority to their subordinates because

1. Final responsibility is there 2. Subordinates are not capable enough

3. They can’t trust their subordinates

4 they are apprehensive losing their hold on the workplace

53. Orientation of subordinates of common objectives and how to acieve them is

1. a must 2. not very important 3.not at all necessary 4. Optional

54. A humane attitude on the part of the supervisor towards his staff is necessary to

1. Keep them happy 2. get them to work

3. get the best out of them 4.have a congenial atmosphere at workplace

55. The greatest motivator in a workplace is

1. Fulfilment of purpose 2. a sense of security

3. a good supervisor 4. a good environment

Directions—(Q. 56-57) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

56. MENIAL

1.Unskilled 2. Tall 3. Affluent 4.Sick

57. VICARIOUS

1. Ambitious 2. Not experienced personally

3. Nostalgic 4. Vindictive

Directions—(Q. 58–59) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

58. PUERILE

1. Inquisitive 2.matured 3. Impure 4. Original

59. SOBRIETY

1. Moderation 2. Drunkenness 3. Dizziness 4. Stupidity

Directions—(Q. 60–63) (i) In this section a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (1), (2) and (3) and (4). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error.

60. Critics of government policy   /    argue that the new measures introduced
                    (1)                                                                            (2)
to fight crime are simply papering on the cracks.       /            No error.                     (3)                                                                                        (4)

61. The plans have been under      /     discussion for a year now,
                    (1)                                                              (2)
   but no decision has reached.            /          No error.                    (3)                                                            (4)

62. Two newspapers did         /            an very effective hatchet job
                   (1)                                                               (2)
on the Prime Minister’s achievements.     /         No error.
                  (3)                                                                    (4)

63. Your argument was clear       /           to us from the start
                    (1)                                                             (2)
there’s no need to labour the point.         /        No error.                    (3)                                                             (4)

64. Which of the following is a Simple Sentence?

1. I met my friend when I went to the theatre

2. On my way to the theatre, I met my friend

3. I went to the theatre and met my friend

4. While I was in the theatre, I met my friend

65. The following sentence has been transformed into the Passive in four ways. Which transformation is the best?

They will make him King

1. He will be made King by them.

2. King would be made by them.

3. He was made king by them

4. King will be made by them.

66. In which sentence is the verb in the active voice?

1. They were detained at the gate

2. You have made it easy

3. It has been recently disproved

4. She was known for her talent in music.

67. In which of the following sentences are all articles used correctly?

1. This hospital was rated the most advanced with respect to the techniques employed for surgery.

2. This hospital was rated the most advanced with respect to the techniques employed for the surgery

3. This hospital was rated a most advanced with respect to the techniques employed for surgery

4. This hospital was rated most advanced with respect to the techniques used for a surgery

68. In which of the following sentences are all Prepositions used correctly?

1. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed towards frogs.

2. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed for frogs.

3. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed into frogs

4. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed from frogs

69. The cricket match proved to be a big draw. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of idiom / phrase underlined

1. A keen contest 2. A huge attraction

3. A lovely spectacle 4. A game without any result

70. Which of the following is a suitable way to end a letter to a close friend?

1. Write back soon, will you?

2. An immediate reply will be greatly appreciated

3. Reply by return of post

4. Expecting a favourable reply, I remain

71. ________you remember to lock the door?

1. Didn’t 2. Aren’t 3. Haven’t 4. Doesn’t

72. What part of speech is the underlined word or words in the following sentence?
She floated quietly and lazily around the pool.

1. Noun 2. Adverb 3. Preposition 4 Adjective

73. Mother said to son, “ Do not run so fast” ( Change into indirect speech)

1. Mother wanted son, not to run so fast

2. Mother said son, not to run so fast

3. Mother advised son, not to run so fast

4.Mother ordered son, not to run so fast

74. Having obtained the degree abroad, Harsha returned home. (Choose its correct compound sentence form)

1. The degree was obtained abroad and Harsha returned home

2.Harsha returned home because he obtained the degree abroad

3. Harsha obtained the degree abroad and he returned home

4. Harsha returned home and he obtained the degree abroad

75. She ______ cakes; there's flour on her hands. 1. has baked 2. Bakes 3. Has been baked 4. Has been baking

PART-D

REASONING AND ANALYTICAL ABILITY

76. Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question mark (?)

1 2 3 2 10 12

2 5 12 10 16 13

1 2 1 ? 10 24

1. 5 2.11 3.13 4.8

77. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1. 19 2. 35 3. 15 4. 21

78. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.

A.Wrinkle B. Wriggle C. Writhe D. Wratch E. Wrath

1. D,E,A,B,C 2. E,D,B, A,C 3.D,B,E,A,B 4.E,B,A,C, D

80. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?

1. Potato 2. Guava 3.Apple 4. Banana

81. If in a certain code, ‘O’ is written as ‘E’, ‘A’, as ‘C’, ‘M’ as ‘I’, ‘S’ as ‘O’, ‘N’ as ‘P’, ‘E’ as ‘M’, ‘I’ as ‘A’, ‘P’ as ‘N’ and ‘C’ as ‘S’, then how will ‘COMPANIES’ be written in that code?

1. SEIACPAMO 2. SMINCPAMO

3. SEINCPAMO 4. SEINCPMIO

82. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a certain way while one i different. Choose the odd one.

1. GWOURV 2. LZKMU 3. SFXPMG 4. JOEHNP

83. From the positions in original figure ‘A’ and ‘C’ move diagonally to opposite corners and then one side each clockwise and anticlockwise respectively. ‘D’ and ‘B’ move two sides each clockwise and anticlockwise respectively. Where is ‘A’ now?

1. At the North-East corner 2.At the North-West corner

3 At the South-West corner 4. At the South-East corner

84.It was 9•35 a.m. in Rakhi’s watch, which kept correct time, when Reena informed her that the last bus left the bus stop at 9•25 a.m. Reena’s watch is 5 minutes fast. The frequency of the bus is every 20 minutes. For how long Rakhi must wait to catch the next bus?

1. 5 minutes 2. 10 minutes 3. 15 minutes 4. 25 minutes

85. Among A, B, P, Q and S, B is immediate next taller than the shortest and Q is taller than P. Which of he following statements (s) is (are) necessary to decide the tallest among them?

(A) P is not as tall as S.

(B) A is third below Q in height

(C) P is second in height above A

1. Only (A) or (B) 2. Only (B) or (C)

3 Only (A) or (C) 4(A) or (B) or (C)

86.If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q? Ans: C

1. Q - N + M x P 2. P + S x N – Q 3. P - M + N x Q 4. Q - S % P

87. Find out the missing number:-

4	6	18
2	3	2
3	4	?
6	8	27

1. 6 2.8 3.4 4.3

88. Five boys are sitting in a row. Sudhir is sitting next to Prakash but not Tarun. Kumar is sitting next to Ravi who is sitting on the extreme left and Tarun is not sitting next to Kumar. Who are sitting on either side of Sudhir?

1. Prakash & Kumar 2. Prakash &Ravi 3.Tarun & Prakash 4. Prakash alone

89. How many even numbers are there in the following sequence of numbers whiich are immediately followedby an odd number as well as immediately preceded by an even number?

8 6 7 6 8 9 3 2 7 5 3 4 2 2 3 5 5 2 2 8 1 1 9

1. One 2. Three 3. Five 4. None of these.

90.Which one will replace the question mark ?

1.64 2.144 3.169 4. 139

Directions–(Q. 91–95) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.

91. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the seventeenth from the right end ?

1. E 2 P 3. I 4.@

92. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifth to the left of ‘V’ ?

1. 3 2. A 3. N 4. S

93. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the fourteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?

1 V 2.4 3. % 4. E

94. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

1. IM% 2. CNG 3. 3#N 4 UGC

95. How many such symbols are there in above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by an alphabet and immediately followed by a number ?

1. None 2. One 3. Two 4.Three

Directions (96-100): Answer the questions based on the given line graph.

Ratio of Exports to Imports (in terms of money in Rs. crores) of Two Companies Over the Years

96. In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports for Company A?

1.2 2.3 3. 4 4.5

97. If the imports of Company A in 1997 were increased by 40 percent, what would be the ratio of exports to the increased imports?

1. 1.25 2. 1.20 3. 1.30 4.None

98. If the exports of Company A in 1998 were Rs. 237 crores, what was the amount of imports in that year?

1.Rs. 189.6 crores 2. Rs. 243 crores 3. Rs. 281 crores 4. Rs. 316 crores

99. In 1995, the export of Company A was double that of Company B. If the imports of Company A during the year was Rs. 180 crores, what was the approximate amount of imports pf Company B during that year?

1.Rs. 190 crores 2. Rs. 210 crores 3. Rs. 225 crores 4. Cannot be determined

100. In which year(s) was the difference between imports and exports of Company B the maximum?

1.2000 2.1996 3. 1998 to 2000 4. Cannot be determined

Answers :-

1- 1 , 2- 3 , 3- 4 , 4- 3 , 5- 3 , 6- 3 , 7-4 , 8-3 , 9- 2 , 10-2 , 11-3 , 12- 2 , 13- 3 ,

14- 3 , 15-2 , 16- 2 , 17- 4 , 18-3 , 19-2 ,20- 3 , 21-2 , 22-4 , 23-2, 24-4, 25-3, 26- 4,

27- 1, 28- 4 , 29- 3, 30- 2 , 31- 4 , 32- 2 , 33- 1 , 34- 2 , 35- 2 , 36- 2 , 37- 1,38-3 , 39- 2,

40- 2, 41-3, 42- 1, 43- 4, 44- 4, 45- 1 , 46- 2 , 47-3 , 48- 1 , 49- 4 , 50- 2 , 51- 4, 52- 4 ,

53- 1, 54- 3, 55- 1, 56- 1, 57- 4 ,58- 2 ,59- 2 , 60- 3 , 61- 3 , 62- 2 , 63- 4 , 64- 2, 65- 1 ,

66- 2, 67- 1 , 68- 3 , 69- 2, 70- 1, 71- 1, 72- 4, 73- 4 , 74- 3, 75- 4 , 76- 3, 77- 1, 78- 2,

79- 2, 80- 4, 81- 3, 82- 3, 83- 4, 84- 1, 85- 1, 86- 3, 87- 3, 88- 1, 89- 4, 90- 2, 91- 4,

92- 4, 93- 3, 94- 4, 95- 3, 96- 2, 97- 1, 98-4, 99- 2, 100- 4

Courtesy : http://akulapraveen.blogspot.in/ & http://sapost.blogspot.in/

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Sl no	Name of the Circle	No of Cities in which Exam is conducting	Names of Cities in which Exam is conducting	Total no of Examination Venues	Total no of candidates attending the Exam
1	Andhra Pradesh	5	Hyderabad, Sec’bad, Kurnool,Vijayawada, Viskhapatnam	157	89,219
2	Gujarat	3	Ahmedabad, Rajkot, Vadodra	101	69,576
3	Karnataka	3	Bangalore, Dharwar, Mysore	53	42,362
4	Maharastra	5	Aurangabad,Pune, Nagpur, Panaji, Mumbai	229	1,08,528
5	Tamilnadu	5	Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai,Tiruchurapalli, Puducherry	52	52,418

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